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发表于 2010-10-2 23:17
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http://www.medhelp.org/posts/HIV ... ccurate/show/468421
Was it accurate?
by fcollinz, Mar 18, 2008 09:48AM
I am a young 20s male and in the past year since my last HIV test prior to this recent test I've given oral sex to about 15 different men, and received oral sex from nearly all in that group too and maybe 2 additional others who I didn’t give oral sex to. No one ejaculated semen in mouth, but probably pre-semen was in my mouth. I asked them of their STD status but I didn't know them well, so it is difficult to know if they were being truthful. Of these encounters, 4 were in the period of 6 weeks to 10 weeks ago, the others were prior to 12 weeks ago. I decided to stop doing these sorts of activities and exactly 43 days after my last possible exposure of giving/receiving unprotected oral I had an HIV EIA Antibody test run via LabCorp . The HIV EIA Antibody test included Western Blot confirmation if it was positive but it did not include the P24 antigen test. Thankfully, the test returned a NEGATIVE result. I am unsure how to interpret these results given that three of my episodes of giving and receiving unprotected oral sex and one of just receiving oral sex were from 43 days (6 weeks) to 10 weeks ago. I never have engaged in unprotected anal or vaginal sex and the only ailments I’ve felt in the past months has been diarrhea and fatigue.
1. How accurate, given my situation, is the negative results of my HIV EIA test without the P24 antigen test at the 43 day point since last possible exposure of giving/receiving oral with an additional three unprotected oral sex exposures (2 giving&receiving, 1 just receiving) from 6.5 to 10 weeks ago?
2.Is further HIV testing necessary from your scientific/medical perspective? One counselor said no because of the low risk that is oral sex and 6 weeks is fine, another said because it was before the 12 week point from last possible exposure.
3. Finally, I just want to confirm receiving oral sex and kissing (even with a canker sore) are 0 risk activities?
Thanks
by Edward W Hook, MD, Mar 18, 2008 10:53AM
To: fcollinz
Congratulations on your decision to curb your activities. While as we say repeatedly pral sex is very, very low risk, there are other problems which can be transmitted this way as well. As for your questions:
1. At 6 weeks 95% of tests that are going to be positive will be. Things look very good. The additional benefit of a P24 test at this time is unknown. I don't think you need it.
2. I agree with the counselor. Given the low risk of oral exposures and your negative results at this time, I do not think you need further testing unless you are going to worry about it. I don't think you have much to worry about.
3. Kissing = 0 risk. Oral sex, very low, but not 0 risk.
Hope this helps. Stay safe. EWH
To: FCollinz
You do not have to worry about receiving oral or kissing. There have not any well documented cases of HIV resulting from receiving oral and kissing is perfectly fine. No worries.
by fcollinz, Mar 18, 2008 02:03PM
To: Dr. Hook
Thank you for your response. When you say oral sex is very low risk at the end of the comment, do you mean giving or receiving oral sex?
I've heard on other places on this forum that being the recipient of oral sex is 0 risk, while giving oral sex carries a very low risk.
by Edward W Hook, MD, Mar 18, 2008 08:22PM
To: fcollinz
My comment pertains to both giving and receiving oral sex.
The difference between very low risk and no risk is that it is conceivable that someday someone will get HIV through oral sex. That will happen however only after many, probably millions of exposures. On the other hand, no risk means never. For any one person the two are equivalent. EWH
翻译最后1段话吧。DR。HOOK说,他给予KJ的评论都涉及到接受和给予
低风险和无风险的区别不同在于,(他用了个it is指的是低风险)它是可以想象到某人在某一天通过KJ感染HIV,这种情况会发生,但是要经过很多次,可能是数百万次的风险。在另一方面,无风险就意味着永远(理解成,无风险就意味着永远无风险)。对于任何一个人,2者是等价的是相同的。
如有翻译的不恰当,望指出。谢谢
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